Wednesday, March 13, 2013
“Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?” (John 10:34 KJV).
What did Jesus Christ mean in today’s Scripture?
In the context, He states, “My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand. I and my Father are one” (verses 29,30). Notice how Christ says His Father is “greater than all,” and then He equates Himself with His Father—“I and my Father are one.” Jesus is claiming to be equal to God the Father, and this infuriates the Jews. “Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him” (verse 31).
“Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God” (verses 32,33). Today’s Scripture says: “Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?”
For some time, these verses puzzled me. Why did Jesus quote Psalm 82:6 (“Ye are gods”)? How does this relate to the situation in John chapter 10? Why does the Bible call men “gods” here?
Firstly, read Psalm 82. Israel’s leaders, whom God ordained to lead the nation in His ways, are perverted and cruel. They were “gods” in the sense that God wanted to utilize their position of leadership to take care of His people, Israel. However, they preferred to abuse their authority. They are not fulfilling God’s will; they are not executing righteous judgment in Israel. But, how does this relate to today’s Scripture? Why did Jesus even mention this in relation to His situation in John chapter 10? We shall search the Scriptures for the answer….